I mean, it’s usually used to undermine a cause by killing their leaders, but their death can also cause them to become a martyr and get even more support. Which is generally true for the majority of assassinations?
Why I asked? Because recent events in Ecuador got me wondering.
There is no question that the assassination of Rabin was a “success”. The assassin had a political objective that was met completely and the politicians that were obviously, intentionally inciting violence (in a plausibly deniable way of course) are in control of the government.
https://www.haaretz.com/opinion/2016-11-13/ty-article/editorial-netanyahu-cant-wash-his-hands-of-incitement/0000017f-dbcf-d3a5-af7f-fbefa96d0000
True; my only question is whether it was inevitable that peace talks would have broken down anyway, and all the assassination did was slightly hasten the collapse. It’s like the question of whether the assassination of Ferdinand caused WWI. No-one would argue that it wasn’t the trigger, but in the counterfactual case tensions were so high that a conflict was really inevitable.